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8020시험덤프샘플최신버전인증덤프문제
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8020시험덤프샘플 시험준비에 가장 좋은 기출문제 모은 덤프자료
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PRMIA 8020 시험요강:
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최신 PRM Certification 8020 무료샘플문제 (Q48-Q53):
질문 # 48
Risk Capacity for a bank is defined as the:
- A. Amount of risk the bank wishes to take.
- B. Ability to withstand an extreme event and make a profit.
- C. Amount of risk the regulator sets for the bank.
- D. Ability to suffer an extreme event with an orderly wind up with only shareholders losing money.
정답:D
설명:
Step 1: Definition of Risk Capacity
Risk Capacity refers to the maximum level of risk a bank can absorb while still maintaining orderly operations or, in extreme cases, conducting an orderly resolution.
PRMIA and Basel III define risk capacity as a bank's ability to absorb losses in a crisis without systemic consequences.
Step 2: Why Option D Is Correct
The ultimate test of a bank's risk capacity is whether it can survive an extreme shock without harming depositors or financial markets.
Regulators ensure that a bank can be wound up in an orderly manner so that only shareholders lose money, while depositors and creditors remain protected under resolution planning frameworks.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Amount of risk the bank wishes to take")
Incorrect because this describes Risk Appetite, not Risk Capacity.
Option B ("Amount of risk the regulator sets for the bank")
Incorrect because regulators set capital requirements, but the bank's actual risk capacity is based on its own capital structure and business model.
Option C ("Ability to withstand an extreme event and make a profit")
Incorrect because risk capacity is about survival, not profit-making during extreme events.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
Basel III Risk Capacity Standards - Defines the ability to absorb losses during crises.
PRMIA Risk Governance Framework - Describes how banks should manage risk capacity through capital buffers.
Final Conclusion:
Banks must be able to withstand an extreme event and conduct an orderly wind-up if necessary, ensuring that only shareholders bear the loss, making Option D the correct answer.
질문 # 49
For the Northern Rock case study, what was the low-probability-high-impact event that was most responsible for the loss event?
- A. Liquidity dried up in the inter-bank and commercial paper markets.
- B. The acquisition of Merrill Lynch by Bank of America.
- C. The Bank of England's withdrawal of Deposit Protection.
- D. An exposure to real estate funds, heavily concentrated in Berlin.
정답:A
설명:
Step 1: Understanding the Northern Rock Case Study
Northern Rock was a UK bank that collapsed in 2007 due to its heavy reliance on short-term wholesale funding rather than customer deposits.
When the 2007 financial crisis hit, the inter-bank lending market and commercial paper market froze, cutting off Northern Rock's access to liquidity.
Step 2: Why Option C Is Correct
Northern Rock depended on short-term borrowing to fund long-term mortgage lending.
When the liquidity crisis hit, it couldn't refinance its debt, leading to a bank run and collapse.
The Bank of England had to intervene, and the UK government nationalized Northern Rock in 2008.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Acquisition of Merrill Lynch") → Incorrect because this happened in 2008, after Northern Rock's failure.
Option B ("Withdrawal of Deposit Protection") → Incorrect because UK deposit protection remained in place.
Option D ("Real estate exposure in Berlin") → Incorrect because Northern Rock's problem was funding liquidity, not real estate losses.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Liquidity Risk Management Framework - Describes how liquidity shocks impact banks like Northern Rock.
Basel III Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) Standards - Created after Northern Rock to prevent similar liquidity crises.
Final Conclusion:
The collapse of the inter-bank and commercial paper markets was the key low-probability-high-impact event that led to Northern Rock's failure, making Option C the correct answer.
질문 # 50
Risk Sensitive pricing is required for several good reasons. Which one of the following is not relevant to the Management's evaluation of the correct approach to Risk Sensitive pricing?
- A. To link personal targets to risk-adjusted return requirements would reinforce the desired risk aware, culture.
- B. To ensure the income targets can be met or exceeded.
- C. To avoid the build-up of a skewed quality property portfolio.
- D. To adequately reward the investors for the capital they gave us to put at risk.
정답:B
설명:
Risk-sensitive pricing ensures that financial institutions and businesses properly account for risk in their pricing strategies to maintain stability and sustainability. PRMIA's Risk Pricing and Capital Adequacy Guidelines define the importance of risk-sensitive pricing in ensuring fair compensation for risk exposure and avoiding risk concentration issues.
Step 1: Why Risk-Sensitive Pricing Is Important
Aligns risk with return: Pricing should be designed to reflect the underlying risk and return trade-off.
Protects investors: Investors expect compensation for capital at risk (Option A is correct).
Reinforces risk-aware culture: PRMIA promotes linking incentives to risk-adjusted returns (Option B is correct).
Prevents adverse selection: Proper risk pricing prevents low-quality assets from accumulating (Option C is correct).
Step 2: Why Option D Is Incorrect
Income targets are business-driven, not risk-driven.
Risk-sensitive pricing aims to balance risk and reward, not just maximize revenue.
PRMIA discourages profit-seeking behavior at the expense of risk considerations.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Pricing Guidelines - Defines the principles of risk-sensitive pricing.
PRMIA Risk-Adjusted Return Standards - Stresses linking incentives to risk-aware decisions.
PRMIA Capital Adequacy Framework - Highlights the role of risk-sensitive pricing in portfolio management.
Final Conclusion:
Risk-sensitive pricing is designed to align returns with risk exposure, not simply to meet or exceed income targets, making Option D the correct answer.
질문 # 51
Which of the following is not an action available to management and the governing body to align the strategy with Risk Capacity.
- A. Reduce retained earning - by increasing dividends in order to return funds to investors and improve reputation.
- B. Improve quality of risks - pursue lower rewarding risks with better prospects.
- C. Reduce scale of risks - shrink balance sheet or activity levels.
- D. Improve retained earnings - by increasing net income or reducing dividends in order to increase risk capacity.
정답:A
설명:
Step 1: Aligning Strategy with Risk Capacity
Risk capacity is the maximum level of risk a firm can bear based on financial resources, earnings, and capital structure.
Management can adjust risk capacity by modifying risk exposure, balance sheet size, or earnings retention.
Step 2: Why Option C Is Incorrect
Increasing dividends reduces retained earnings, which lowers capital reserves and reduces risk capacity.
Firms seeking to improve risk capacity should retain earnings, not distribute them.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Correct
Option A ("Reduce scale of risks") → Correct as reducing balance sheet size lowers risk exposure.
Option B ("Improve quality of risks") → Correct as taking on lower-risk assets improves stability.
Option D ("Improve retained earnings") → Correct as more capital increases risk capacity.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Capital Management Framework - Defines risk capacity and earnings retention strategies.
Basel III Capital Standards - Stresses retained earnings as a key factor in risk capacity.
Final Conclusion:
Reducing retained earnings through dividends weakens risk capacity, making Option C the correct answer.
질문 # 52
Which of the following is not the purpose or benefit of a Risk Appetite statement?
- A. Risk management standards and resources are likely to be improved.
- B. The governing body articulates its expectations.
- C. Establishes the maximum risk that the organization can stand.
- D. Assists with Strategic discussions.
정답:C
설명:
Step 1: Understanding a Risk Appetite Statement
Risk Appetite is the amount of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives.
A Risk Appetite Statement (RAS) communicates risk tolerance levels and management expectations.
Step 2: Why Option C is Incorrect
Risk Capacity (not Risk Appetite) defines the maximum risk the firm can withstand.
Risk Appetite is about willingness to take risk, not the absolute limit.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Correct
Option A ("Improves risk management standards") → Correct, as RAS helps define better risk management.
Option B ("Governing body articulates expectations") → Correct, as RAS is approved by the board.
Option D ("Assists strategic discussions") → Correct, as RAS guides decision-making.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Appetite Framework - Differentiates between Risk Appetite and Risk Capacity.
Basel III Governance Principles - Encourages organizations to establish clear risk appetite statements.
Final Conclusion:
Risk Appetite does not establish the maximum risk the firm can withstand-that is Risk Capacity, making Option C the correct answer.
질문 # 53
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